Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) ________ is the drug of choice for hypertensive emergency. 1)
A) Enalapril (Vasotec) B) Nitroprusside (Nitropress)
C) Lisinopril (Zestril) D) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
2) Which of the following is not an inhaled anesthetic? 2)
A) Methoxyflurane (Penthrane) B) Isoflurane (Forane)
C) Halothane (Fluothane) D) Propofol (Diprivan)
3) Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are most effectively controlled by which of the following
medications? Select all that apply.
3)
A) Clonidine (Catapres) B) Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
C) Perphenazine (Phenazine) D) Citlopram (Celexa)
4) Risk factors associated with peptic ulcer disease include which of the following? Select all that
apply.
4)
A) Blood type A B) Family history
C) Smoking tobacco D) Drinking caffeine
5) The science of preparing and dispensing drugs is known as: 5)
A) Pharmacology. B) Pharmaceutics.
C) Traditional drug therapy. D) Therapeutics.
6) Drug A produces a certain therapeutic effect at a dose of 5 mg/kg. Drug B produces the same
magnitude of effect at a dose of 0.1 mg/kg. Drug A is ________ than drug B.
6)
A) Less potent B) More efficacious
C) More potent D) Less efficacious
7) A receptor is: 7)
A) A cell component to which a drug binds in a dose-dependent manner.
B) Present only in the drug's target tissue.
C) Required to drug action.
D) Analogous to the "key" in the lock-and-key model of drug—receptor interaction.
8) Hormone pharmacotherapy use includes which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Exaggerated response B) Antineoplastics
C) Therapeutic advantage D) Replacement therapy
9) A prodrug: 9)
A) Is a name brand drug.
B) Requires metabolism to make it active.
C) Is the first drug developed in a drug class.
D) Is not absorbed by the body.
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10) Thiazides might be preferred over loop diuretics because: 10)
A) They do not cause electrolyte imbalance.
B) The frequency of adverse effects is much lower.
C) Possible dehydration is not a factor.
D) They can be taken on an as-needed basis.
11) ________ is the only gas used for anesthesia. 11)
A) Pramoxine (Tronothane) B) Nitrous oxide
C) Dibucaine (Nupercaine) D) Dyclonine (Dyclone)
12) ________ occurs when sensation is lost to a limited part of the body without loss of consciousness. 12)
A) General anesthesia B) Surgical anesthesia
C) Local anesthesia D) Total anesthesia
13) Which of the following drug classes prescribed for the treatment of heart failure have a negative
inotropic effect?
13)
A) Cardiac glycosides B) Beta-adrenergic blockers
C) ACE inhibitors D) Angiotensin-receptor blockers
14) The branch of medicine concerned with the treatment of disease and suffering is known as: 14)
A) Pharmacotherapeutics. B) Therapeutics.
C) Pathophysiology. D) Pharmacology.
15) The GI tract contains which of the following? Select all that apply. 15)
A) Stomach B) Pancreas C) Liver D) Large intestine
16) Vasodilators have limited use due to which of the following side effects? Select all that apply. 16)
A) Reflex tachycardia B) Blurry vision
C) Orthostatic hypotension D) Hypertension
17) A drug that acts as an antagonist: 17)
A) Blocks the actions of an agonist. B) Has no therapeutic benefit.
C) Facilitates cell action. D) Does not bind with receptors.
18) An inpatient client with COPD has been diagnosed with allergic rhinitis, and is given an
antihistamine. The nurse knows to:
18)
A) Premedicate with acetaminophen (Tylenol).
B) Give before client starts wheezing.
C) Keep resuscitative equipment accessible.
D) Consult physician before administering.
19) Drugs that demonstrate wide margins of safety and are used over long periods of time are often
switched from:
19)
A) Prescription-only to over-the-counter (OTC) drug.
B) Traditional drug therapy classification to biologics classification.
C) Therapeutic to effective.
D) One classification to a lower, less restrictive one.
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20) Which of the following will slow the absorption of a drug? 20)
A) Taking medication with food
B) Taking medication with water
C) Taking medication as prescribed
D) Taking medication earlier than prescribed
21) A duodenal ulcer can be differentiated from a gastric ulcer by the presence of: 21)
A) Nighttime pain. B) Nausea and vomiting.
C) Anorexia. D) Postprandial pain.
22) The term pharmacology is defined as: 22)
A) The use of herbs, natural extracts, vitamins, minerals, or dietary supplements to treat
diseases.
B) The use of medicine to treat disease.
C) The study of medicine.
D) The branch of medicine concerned with the treatment of disease and suffering.
23) Which of the following statements describe advantages of prescription drugs versus
over-the-counter (OTC) drugs? Select all that apply.
23)
A) The practitioner is able to control the dose and frequency of dosing of the drug.
B) The cost of the drug is always less than the cost of an OTC drug.
C) The practitioner can maximize therapy by ordering the proper medication for the client's
condition.
D) There are fewer side effects of prescription drugs than of OTC drugs.
24) The primary action of digoxin (Lanoxin) is: 24)
A) Increased diuresis. B) An increase in the force of contraction.
C) Decreased blood pressure. D) A decrease in the force of contraction.
25) Alteplase (Activase) must be given within ________ hours of the onset of symptoms of MI and
within ________ hours of thrombotic stroke to be effective.
25)
A) 6; 3 B) 24; 12 C) 12; 24 D) 3; 6
26) Which of the following are examples of live attenuated vaccines? Select all that apply. 26)
A) Influenza B) Hepatitis A vaccine
C) Measles, mumps and rubella vaccine D) Tetanus toxoid
27) Cardiac output is: 27)
A) The volume of blood pumped per minute.
B) The systolic pressure.
C) Equal to the mean arterial pressure.
D) The diastolic pressure.
28) The first step to treating shock is to provide: 28)
A) Basic life support. B) Blood and/or blood products.
C) Fluid replacement. D) Medications to counteract the sequelae.
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29) A child diagnosed with ADHD would most likely exhibit which of the following symptoms? Select
all that apply.
29)
A) Impulsiveness
B) Excessive talking
C) Able to focus on a task for an extended period of time
D) Easily distracted
30) Stage three anesthesia is called: 30)
A) Balanced anesthesia. B) Local anesthesia.
C) Topical anesthesia. D) Surgical anesthesia.
31) The main organ of excretion is the: 31)
A) Colon. B) Liver. C) Lung. D) Kidney.
32) There are ________ stages of general anesthesia. 32)
A) 1 B) 4 C) 2 D) 3
33) A biotransformation reaction: 33)
A) Converts drugs from one form to another that can result in increased or decreased activity.
B) Is the final step in excretion of a drug from the body.
C) Is the process of absorption.
D) Does not change the effect of a drug.
34) ________ are often the first choice for treating hypertension. 34)
A) Diuretics B) Beta blockers C) Alpha blockers D) ACE inhibitors
35) The primary goals of pharmacotherapy for schizophrenic patients is to: (Select all that apply.) 35)
A) Cure schizophrenia.
B) Reduce psychotic symptoms to a level that allows the patient to maintain normal social
relationships.
C) Increase delusional symptoms.
D) Reduce psychotic symptoms to a level that allows the patient to perform self-care.
36) First-pass effect can result in a large fraction of administered drug's being metabolically
deactivated. Which of the following client factors will decrease the magnitude of the first-pass
effect? Select all that apply.
36)
A) Hepatic disease B) Elderly client
C) Renal disease D) Gall bladder disease
37) Pharmacodynamics is a term that describes: 37)
A) The potency of a drug. B) How a drug exerts its effects.
C) The efficacy of a drug. D) What the body does to a drug.
38) Metabolism can be affected by which of the following factors? Select all that apply. 38)
A) Kidney disease B) Age C) Genetics D) Liver disease
39) Therapeutic drugs are sometimes classified on the basis of how they are produced. Insulin would
fall into which category?
39)
A) Biologics B) Traditional therapeutic drug
C) Natural therapy D) Alternative therapies
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40) The process by which drugs are transported after they have been absorbed or administered
directly into the bloodstream is known as:
40)
A) Distribution. B) Excretion.
C) Metabolism. D) Administration.
41) ________ is responsible for the maturation of the reproductive organs and for the appearance of
the secondary sex characteristics in women.
41)
A) Testosterone B) Androgen C) Estrogen D) Progesterone
42) Interferons are used for which of the following? Select all that apply. 42)
A) Slow the spread of viral infections. B) Treat anti-inflammatory actions.
C) Decrease heart rate. D) Decrease blood pressure.
43) Mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and androgens are released by: 43)
A) The adrenal glands. B) The thyroid gland.
C) The pancreas. D) The pituitary gland.
44) Blood pressure is regulated on a minute-to-minute basis by: 44)
A) The kidney. B) The liver.
C) The vasomotor center. D) The lungs.
45) The choice of drug for epilepsy pharmacology is determined upon assessment of the client. Once a
medication is selected, the client is placed on a:
45)
A) Low initial dose. B) Life dose.
C) Bolus dose. D) Maximum dose.
46) ________ is/are used to rapidly cause unconsciousness and muscle relaxation, and to maintain
deep anesthesia.
46)
A) Always two medications B) Single medication
C) Multiple medications D) Always five medications
47) When a medication binds to a plasma protein, the drug: 47)
A) Has reached its target cells.
B) Is unable to reach its target cells.
C) Is in the process of being excreted by the body.
D) Is working at its full potential.
48) Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) is prescribed alone or in combination to treat which of the following
types of tumor or cancers? Select all that apply.
48)
A) Bone cancers B) Head and neck cancers
C) Benign D) Lung carcinoma
49) Chemotherapy has three general goals, which are: (Select all that apply.) 49)
A) Prevention. B) Control. C) Cure. D) Palliation.
50) Codeine has a greater maximal ability to suppress cough when compared with dextromethorphan.
Codeine is ________ than dextromethorphan.
50)
A) More efficacious B) More potent
C) Less potent D) Less efficacious
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Answer Key
Testname: TES 3
1) B
2) D
3) B, C
4) B, C, D
5) B
6) A
7) A
8) A, B, C, D
9) B
10) B
11) B
12) C
13) B
14) B
15) A, D
16) A, C
17) A
18) C
19) A
20) A
21) D
22) C
23) A, C
24) B
25) A
26) C
27) A
28) A
29) A, B, D
30) D
31) D
32) B
33) A
34) A
35) B, D
36) A, B
37) B
38) A, B, C, D
39) A
40) A
41) C
42) A, B
43) A
44) C
45) A
46) C
47) B
48) A, B, D
49) B, C, D
50) A
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