fivefingers - BIO 202 QUESTIONS

Question

TypeCampbell Biology, 10e (Reece)

Chapter 19 Viruses

1) Which of the three types of viruses shown above would you expect to include glycoproteins?

A) I only

B) II only

C) III only

D) I and II only

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.1

2) Which of the three types of viruses shown above would you expect to include a capsid(s)?

A) I only

B) II only

C) III only

D) I, II, and III

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.1

3) Which of the following supports the argument that viruses are nonliving?

A) They are not cellular.

B) Their DNA does not encode proteins.

C) They have RNA rather than DNA.

D) They do not evolve.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.1

4) Viruses _____.

A) manufacture their own ATP, proteins, and nucleic acids

B) use the host cell to copy themselves and make viral proteins

C) use the host cell to copy themselves and then viruses synthesize their own proteins

D) metabolize food and produce their own ATP

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.1

5) What is the main structural difference between enveloped and nonenveloped viruses?

A) Enveloped viruses have their genetic material enclosed by a layer made only of protein.

B) Nonenveloped viruses have only a phospholipid membrane, while enveloped viruses have two membranes, the other one being a protein capsid.

C) Enveloped viruses have a phospholipid membrane outside their capsid, whereas nonenveloped viruses do not have a phospholipid membrane.

D) Both types of viruses have a capsid and phospholipid membrane; but in the nonenveloped virus the genetic material is between these two membranes, while in the enveloped virus the genetic material is inside both membranes.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.1

6) The host range of a virus is determined by _____.

A) the enzymes carried by the virus

B) whether its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA

C) the proteins in the host's cytoplasm

D) the proteins on its surface and that of the host

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.2

7) Which of the following accounts for someone who has had regular herpesvirus-mediated cold sore or genital sore flare-ups?

A) re-infection by a closely related herpesvirus of a different strain

B) re-infection by the same herpesvirus strain

C) copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei

D) copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host cell cytoplasm

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.2

8) In many ways, the regulation of the genes of a particular group of viruses will be similar to the regulation of the host genes. Therefore, which of the following would you expect of the genes of a bacteriophage?

A) regulation via acetylation of histones

B) positive control mechanisms rather than negative

C) control of more than one gene in an operon

D) reliance on transcription activators

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation

Section: 19.2

9) Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle?

A) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome.

B) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host.

C) A large number of phages are released at a time.

D) The virus—host relationship usually lasts for generations.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.2

10) Which of the following statements describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda (λ) phage?

A) After infection, the viral genes immediately turn the host cell into a lambda-producing factory, and the host cell then lyses.

B) Most of the prophage genes are activated by the product of a particular prophage gene.

C) The phage genome replicates along with the host genome.

D) The phage DNA is copied and exits the cell as a phage.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.2

11) Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis?

A) proviruses

B) viroids

C) bacteriophages

D) retroviruses

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.2

12) What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?

A) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.

B) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA.

C) It translates viral RNA into proteins.

D) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.2

13) In the figure, at the arrow marked II, what enzyme(s) are being utilized?

A) reverse transcriptase

B) viral DNA polymerase

C) host cell DNA polymerase

D) host cell RNA polymerase

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.2

14) In the figure, when new viruses are being assembled at the point marked IV, what mediates the assembly?

A) host cell chaperones

B) assembly proteins coded for by the host nucleus

C) assembly proteins coded for by the viral genes

D) nothing; they self-assemble

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 19.2

Some viruses can be crystallized and their structures analyzed. One such virus is yellow mottle virus, which infects beans. This virus has a single-stranded RNA genome containing about 6300 nucleotides. Its capsid is 25-30 nm in diameter and contains 180 identical capsomeres.

15) If the yellow mottle virus begins its infection of a cell by using its genome as mRNA, which of the following would you expect to be able to measure?

A) replication rate

B) transcription rate

C) translation rate

D) formation of new transcription factors

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 19.2

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

The herpes viruses are important enveloped DNA viruses that cause disease in vertebrates and in some invertebrates such as oysters. Some of the human forms are herpes simplex virus (HSV) types I and II, causing facial and genital lesions, and the varicella zoster virus (VSV), causing chicken pox and shingles. Each of these three actively infects nervous tissue. Primary infections are fairly mild, but the virus is not then cleared from the host; rather, viral genomes are maintained in cells in a latent phase. The virus can later reactivate, replicate again, and infect others.

16) In electron micrographs of HSV infection, it can be seen that the intact virus initially reacts with cell surface proteoglycans, then with specific receptors. This is later followed by viral capsids docking with nuclear pores. Afterward, the capsids go from being full to being "empty." Which of the following best fits these observations?

A) Viral capsids are needed for the cell to become infected; only the capsids enter the nucleus.

B) The viral envelope is not required for infectivity, since the envelope does not enter the nucleus.

C) Only the genetic material of the virus is involved in the cell's infectivity, and is injected like the genome of a phage.

D) The viral envelope mediates entry into the cell, the capsid mediates entry into the nuclear membrane, and the genome is all that enters the nucleus.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 19.2

17) Poliovirus is an RNA virus of the picornavirus group, which uses its RNA as mRNA. At its end, the RNA genome has a viral protein (VPg) instead of a cap. This is followed by a nontranslated leader sequence, and then a single long protein-coding region (~7000 nucleotides), followed by a poly-A tail. Observations were made that used radioactive amino acid analogues. Short period use of the radioactive amino acids result in labeling of only very long proteins, while longer periods of labeling result in several different short polypeptides. What conclusion is most consistent with the results of the radioactive labeling experiment?

A) Host cell ribosomes only translate the viral code into short polypeptides.

B) The RNA is only translated into a single long polypeptide, which is then cleaved into shorter ones.

C) The RNA is translated into short polypeptides, which are subsequently assembled into large ones.

D) The large radioactive polypeptides are coded by the host, whereas the short ones are coded for by the virus.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 19.2

Use the following figure and information to answer the question(s) below.

Cells were infected with approximately 1000 copies of either virus A or virus B at the 0 time point. At five-minute intervals, a sample of the virus and cell mixture was removed. The intact cells were removed from the sample, and the number of viruses per milliliter of culture was determined.

18) Using the data in the figure above, how long does it take for virus A to go through one lytic cycle?

A) 15 minutes

B) 30 minutes

C) 45 minutes

D) 90 minutes

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 19.2

19) Using the data in the figure above, how long does it take for virus B to go through one lytic cycle?

A) 15 minutes

B) 30 minutes

C) 45 minutes

D) 60 minutes

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 19.2

20) The virus genome and viral proteins are assembled into virions (virus particles) during _____.

A) the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle in all known host organisms

B) the lysogenic cycle only

C) the lytic cycle only

D) the lytic cycle in all host organisms but the lysogenic cycle only in bacteria

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 19.2

21) Which of the following viruses would most likely have reverse transcriptase?

A) an RNA-based lytic virus

B) an RNA-based lysogenic virus

C) a DNA-based lytic virus

D) a DNA-based lysogenic virus

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 19.2 the text here
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Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)

Chapter 27 Bacteria and Archaea

1) The predatory bacterium Bdellovibrio bacteriophorus drills into a prey bacterium and, once inside, digests it. In an attack upon a Gram-negative bacterium that has a slimy cell covering, what is the correct sequence of structures penetrated by B. bacteriophorus on its way to the prey's cytoplasm?

1. membrane composed mostly of lipopolysaccharide

2. membrane composed mostly of phospholipids

3. peptidoglycan

4. capsule

A) 2, 4, 3, 1

B) 1, 3, 4, 2

C) 1, 4, 3, 2

D) 4, 1, 3, 2

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.1

2) Jams, jellies, preserves, honey, and other foods with high sugar content hardly ever become contaminated by bacteria, even when the food containers are left open at room temperature. This is because bacteria that encounter such an environment ____.

A) undergo death as a result of water loss from the cell

B) are unable to metabolize the glucose or fructose, and thus starve to death

C) are obligate anaerobes

D) are unable to swim through these thick and viscous materials

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.1

Use the information in the following paragraph to answer the question(s) below.

A hypothetical bacterium swims among human intestinal contents until it finds a suitable location on the intestinal lining. It adheres to the intestinal lining using a feature that also protects it from phagocytes, bacteriophages, and dehydration. Fecal matter from a human in whose intestine this bacterium lives can spread the bacterium, even after being mixed with water and boiled. The bacterium is not susceptible to the penicillin family of antibiotics. It contains no plasmids and relatively little peptidoglycan.

3) This bacterium's ability to survive in a human who is taking penicillin pills may be due to the presence of _____.

1. penicillin-resistance genes

2. a secretory system that removes penicillin from the cell

3. a Gram-positive cell wall

4. a Gram-negative cell wall

5. an endospore

A) 1 or 5

B) 2 or 3

C) 4 or 5

D) 2, 4, or 5

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.1

4) Adherence to the intestinal lining by this bacterium is due to its possession of _____.

A) fimbriae

B) pili

C) a capsule

D) a flagellum

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.1

5) What should be true of the cell wall of this bacterium?

A) Its innermost layer is composed of a phospholipid bilayer.

B) After it has been subjected to Gram staining, the cell should remain purple.

C) It has an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide.

D) It is mostly composed of a complex, cross-linked polysaccharide.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.1

6) In which feature(s) should one be able to locate a complete chromosome of this bacterium?

1. nucleolus

2. prophage

3. endospore

4. nucleoid

A) 4 only

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) 3 and 4

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 27.1

The following table depicts characteristics of five prokaryotic species (A-E). Use the information in the table to answer the question(s) below

Trait	Species A	Species B	Species C	Species D	Species E
Plasmid	R	None	R	F	None
Gram Staining Results	Variable	Variable	Negative	Negative	Negative
Nutritional Mode	Chemohetero- troph	Chemoauto- troph	Chemohetero- troph	Chemohetero- troph	Photoautotroph
Specialized Metabolic Pathways	Aerobic methanotroph (obtains carbon and energy from methane)	Anaerobic methanogen	Anaerobic butanolic fermentation	Anaerobic lactic acid fermentation	Anaerobic nitrogen fixation and aerobic photosystems I and II
Other Features	Fimbriae	Internal membranes	Flagellum	Pili	Thylakoids

7) Which two species should have much more phospholipid, in the form of bilayers, in their cytoplasms than most other bacteria?

A) species A and B

B) species A and C

C) species B and E

D) species C and D

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.1

8) Which species are capable of directed movement?

A) species A

B) species B

C) species C

D) species D

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.1

9) How many of these species probably have a cell wall that consists partly of an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide?

A) only one species

B) two species

C) three species

D) four species

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.1

10) Which of the following observations about flagella is true and is consistent with the scientific conclusion that the flagella from protists and bacteria evolved independently?

A) The flagella of both protists and bacteria are made of the same protein, but the configuration is different.

B) The mechanics of movement and protein structure are the same in these flagella, but there are significant genetic differences.

C) Although the mechanism of movement in both flagella is the same, the protein that accomplishes the movement is different.

D) The protein structure and the mechanism of movement in protist flagella are different from those of bacteria flagella.

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.1

11) In a bacterium that possesses antibiotic resistance and the potential to persist through very adverse conditions, such as freezing, drying, or high temperatures, DNA should be located within, or be part of, which structures?

1. nucleoid region

2. endospore

3. fimbriae

4. plasmids

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 4 only

C) 2 and 4 only

D) 1, 2, and 4

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.1

12) If a bacterium regenerates from an endospore that did not possess any of the plasmids that were contained in its original parent cell, the regenerated bacterium will probably also _____.

A) lack antibiotic-resistant genes

B) lack a cell wall

C) lack a chromosome

D) lack water in its cytoplasm

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.1

13) Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that targets prokaryotic (70S) ribosomes, but not eukaryotic (80S) ribosomes. Which of these questions stems from this observation, plus an understanding of eukaryotic origins?

A) Can chloramphenicol also be used to control human diseases that are caused by archaeans?

B) Can chloramphenicol pass through the capsules possessed by many cyanobacteria?

C) If chloramphenicol inhibits prokaryotic ribosomes, should it not also inhibit mitochondrial ribosomes?

D) Why aren't prokaryotic ribosomes identical to eukaryotic ribosomes?

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation

Section: 27.1

The following questions refer to the figure below.

In this eight-year experiment, twelve populations of E. coli, each begun from a single cell, were grown in low-glucose conditions for 20,000 generations. Each culture was introduced to fresh growth medium every twenty-four hours. Occasionally, samples were removed from the populations, and their fitness in low-glucose conditions was tested against that of members sampled from the ancestral (common ancestor) E. coli population.

14) If new genetic variation in the experimental populations arose solely by spontaneous mutations, then the most effective process for subsequently increasing the prevalence of the beneficial mutations in the population over the course of generations is _____.

A) transduction

B) binary fission

C) conjugation

D) transformation

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.2

Use the following information and graph to answer the question(s) below.

The figure below depicts changes to the amount of DNA present in a recipient cell that is engaged in conjugation with an Hfr cell. Hfr cell DNA begins entering the recipient cell at Time A. Assume that reciprocal crossing over occurs (in other words, a fragment of the recipient's chromosome is exchanged for a homologous fragment from the Hfr cell's DNA).

15) What is occurring at Time C that is decreasing the DNA content?

A) crossing over

B) cytokinesis

C) degradation of DNA that was not retained in the recipient's chromosome

D) reversal of the direction of conjugation

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.2

16) How is the recipient cell different at Time D than it was at Time A?

A) It has a greater number of genes.

B) It has a greater mass of DNA.

C) It has a different sequence of base pairs.

D) It contains bacteriophage DNA.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.2

17) Which two processes are responsible for the shape of the curve at Time B?

1. transduction

2. entry of single-stranded Hfr DNA

3. rolling circle replication of single-stranded Hfr DNA

4. activation of DNA pumps in plasma membrane

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 4

C) 2 and 3

D) 3 and 4

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation

Section: 27.2

18) During which two times can the recipient accurately be described as "recombinant" due to the sequence of events portrayed in the figure?

A) during Times C and D

B) during Times A and C

C) during Times A and B

D) during Times B and D

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation

Section: 27.2

Use the information in the following paragraph to answer the question(s) below.

19) The cell also lacks F factors and F plasmids. Upon its death, this bacterium should be able to participate in _____.

A) conjugation

B) transduction

C) transformation

D) conjugation and transduction

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.2

The following table depicts characteristics of five prokaryotic species (A-E). Use the information in the table to answer the question(s) below

Trait	Species A	Species B	Species C	Species D	Species E
Plasmid	R	None	R	F	None
Gram Staining Results	Variable	Variable	Negative	Negative	Negative
Nutritional Mode	Chemohetero- troph	Chemoauto- troph	Chemohetero- troph	Chemohetero- troph	Photoautotroph
Specialized Metabolic Pathways	Aerobic methanotroph (obtains carbon and energy from methane)	Anaerobic methanogen	Anaerobic butanolic fermentation	Anaerobic lactic acid fermentation	Anaerobic nitrogen fixation and aerobic photosystems I and II
Other Features	Fimbriae	Internal membranes	Flagellum	Pili	Thylakoids

20) Species D is pathogenic if it gains access to the human intestine. Which other species, if it coinhabited a human intestine along with species D, is most likely to result in a recombinant species that is both pathogenic and resistant to some antibiotics?

A) species A

B) species B

C) species C

D) species E

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.2

21) Which species might be able to include Hfr cells?

A) species A

B) species B

C) species C

D) species D

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.2

The following questions refer to the figure below.

22) Which term best describes what has occurred among the experimental populations of cells over this eight-year period?

A) microevolution

B) speciation

C) adaptive radiation

D) stabilizing selection

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.2

23) Compare the bacteria in the figure above in generation 1 and generation 20,000. The bacteria in generation 1 have a greater _____.

A) efficiency at exporting glucose from the cell to the environment

B) ability to survive on simple sugars, other than glucose

C) ability to synthesize glucose from amino acid precursors

D) reliance on glycolytic enzymes

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 27.2

======================================================

Campbell Biology, 10e (Reece)

Chapter 28 Protists

1) According to the endosymbiotic theory, why was it adaptive for the larger (host) cell to keep the engulfed cell alive, rather than digesting it as food?

A) The engulfed cell provided the host cell with adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

B) The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide.

C) The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose.

D) The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive.

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 28.1

2) The chloroplasts of land plants are thought to have been derived according to which evolutionary sequence?

A) cyanobacteria → green algae → land plants

B) cyanobacteria → green algae → fungi → land plants

C) red algae → brown algae → green algae → land plants

D) cyanobacteria → red algae → green algae → land plants

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 28.1

3) A particular species of protist has obtained a chloroplast via secondary endosymbiosis. You know this because the chloroplasts _____.

A) have nuclear and cyanobacterial genes

B) are exceptionally small

C) have three or four membranes

D) have only a single pigment

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 28.1

4) All protists are _____.

A) unicellular

B) eukaryotic

C) symbionts

D) mixotrophic

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 28.1

5) An individual mixotroph loses its plastids, yet continues to survive. Which of the following most likely accounts for its continued survival?

A) It relies on photosystems that float freely in its cytosol.

B) It must have gained extra mitochondria when it lost its plastids.

C) It engulfs organic material by phagocytosis or by absorption.

D) It has an endospore.

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 28.1

6) Which of the following have chloroplasts (or structures since evolved from chloroplasts) thought to be derived from ancestral green algae?

A) stramenopiles

B) apicomplexans

C) dinoflagellates

D) chlorarachniophytes

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 28.1

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Paulinella chromatophora is one of the few cercozoans that is autotrophic, carrying out aerobic photosynthesis with its two elongated "chromatophores." The chromatophores are contained within vesicles of the host cell, and each is derived from a cyanobacterium, though not the same type of cyanobacterium that gave rise to the chloroplasts of algae and plants.

7) The closest living relative of P. chromatophora is the heterotroph P. ovalis. P. ovalis uses threadlike pseudopods to capture its prey, which it digests internally. Which of the following, if observed, would be the best reason for relabeling P. chromatophora as a mixotroph instead of an autotroph?

A) a pigmented central vacuole, surrounded by a tonoplast

B) a vacuole with food inside

C) a secretory vesicle

D) a contractile vacuole

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 28.1

8) Which process could have allowed the nucleomorphs of chlorarachniophytes to be reduced, without the net loss of any genetic information?

A) conjugation

B) horizontal gene transfer

C) phagocytosis

D) meiosis

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 28.1

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

Giardia intestinalis is an intestinal parasite of humans and other mammals that causes intestinal ailments in most people who ingest the cysts. Upon ingestion, each cyst releases two motile cells, called trophozoites. These attach to the small intestine's lining via a ventral adhesive disk. The trophozoites anaerobically metabolize glucose from the host's intestinal contents to produce ATP. Reproduction is completely asexual, occurring by longitudinal binary fission of trophozoites, with each daughter cell receiving two haploid nuclei (n = 5). A trophozoite will often encyst as it passes into the large intestine by secreting around itself a case that is resistant to cold, heat, and dehydration. Infection usually occurs by drinking untreated water that contains cysts.

9) The cysts of Giardia function most like the _____.

A) mitochondria of ancestral diplomonads

B) nuclei of archaeans

C) endospores of bacteria

D) capsids of viruses

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 28.2

10) Consider the following data: (a) Most ancient eukaryotes are unicellular. (b) All eukaryotes alive today have a nucleus and cytoskeleton. (c) Most ancient eukaryotes lack a cell wall. Which of the following conclusions could reasonably follow the data presented? The first eukaryote may have been _____.

A) very similar to a plant cell

B) anaerobic

C) capable of phagocytosis

D) photosynthetic

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 28.2

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

11) Giardia's mitosome can be said to be "doubly degenerate," because it is a degenerate type of ________, an organelle that is itself a degenerate form of ________.

A) nucleus; archaean

B) nucleus; bacterium

C) mitochondria; proteobacterium

D) mitochondria; spirochete

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 28.2

12) The mitosome of Giardia has no DNA within it. If it did contain DNA, then what predictions should we be able to make about its DNA?

1. It is linear.

2. It is circular.

3. It has many introns.

4. It has few introns.

5. It is not associated with histone proteins.

6. It is complexed with histone proteins.

A) 1, 3, and 5

B) 1, 4, and 5

C) 2, 3, and 6

D) 2, 4, and 5

Answer: D

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 28.2

13) Given its mode of reproduction and internal structures, which of the following should be expected to occur in Giardia at some stage of its life cycle?

A) separation (segregation) of daughter chromosomes

B) crossing over

C) meiosis

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 28.2

14) If the mitosomes of Giardia contain no DNA, yet are descendants of what were once free-living organisms, then where are we likely to find the genes that encode their structures, and what accounts for their current location there?

A) plasmids; conjugation

B) plasmids; transformation

C) nucleus; horizontal gene transfer

D) nucleus; S phase

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 28.2

15) When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human, the Plasmodium _____.

A) gametes fuse, forming an oocyst

B) cells infect the human liver cells

C) cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells

D) oocyst undergoes meiosis

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 28.3

16) Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their surface proteins?

1. Plasmodium

2. Trichomonas

3. Paramecium

4. Trypanosoma

5. Entamoeba

A) 1 and 4

B) 2 and 3

C) 2 and 4

D) 4 and 5

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 28.3

17) Which of the following pairs of protists and their characteristics is mismatched?

A) apicomplexans — internal parasites

B) euglenozoans — unicellular flagellates

C) ciliates — red tide organisms

D) entamoebas — ingestive heterotrophs

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 28.3

18) Dinoflagellates _____.

A) possess two flagella

B) are all autotrophic

C) lack mitochondria

D) include species that cause malaria

Answer: A

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 28.3

19) You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm, each featuring the 9 + 2 filament pattern. It has well-developed organelles and two nuclei, one large and one small. This organism is most likely to be a _____.

A) foraminiferan

B) radiolarian

C) ciliate

D) kinetoplastid

Answer: C

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 28.3

20) Which of the following is characteristic of ciliates?

A) They use pseudopods as feeding structures.

B) They are often multinucleate.

C) They can exchange genetic material with other ciliates by the process of mitosis.

D) Most live as solitary autotrophs in fresh water.

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

Section: 28.3

21) Diatoms are mostly asexual members of the phytoplankton. Diatoms lack any organelles that might have the 9 + 2 pattern. They obtain their nutrition from functional chloroplasts, and each diatom is encased within two porous, glasslike valves. Which question would be most important for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms?

A) How do diatoms get transported from one location on the water's surface layers to another location on the surface?

B) How do diatoms with their glasslike valves keep from sinking into poorly lit waters?

C) How do diatoms with their glasslike valves avoid being shattered by the action of waves?

D) How do diatom sperm cells locate diatom egg cells?

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation

Section: 28.3

-base'�sg��Vs

C) a DNA-based lytic virus

D) a DNA-based lysogenic virus

Answer: B

Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

Section: 19.2